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Recipe

Find the smallest k for a generalized eigenvector

Use when: you have a vector \mathbf v and an eigenvalue \lambda, and need to know whether \mathbf v is a generalized eigenvector, or the smallest k with (T-\lambda I)^k\mathbf v=\mathbf 0

Goal: the smallest exponent k, plus the ordinary eigenvector that shows up one application before it

Taught in Generalized eigenvectors

  1. 1

    Compute (T-\lambda I)\mathbf v; if it's already \mathbf 0, \mathbf v is generalized with k=1 (an ordinary eigenvector); otherwise keep the result and continue.

    Example

    For A=\begin{pmatrix}2&1\\0&2\end{pmatrix} and \mathbf w=(0,1): (A-2I)\mathbf w=(1,0)\ne\mathbf0, so continue to Step 2.

    • (T-\lambda I)\mathbf v=\mathbf0 — stop here; \mathbf v is generalized with k=1.
    • (T-\lambda I)\mathbf v\ne\mathbf0 — keep the nonzero result and continue.

    Why: the definition itself is exactly this test at k=1, so checking it first catches the easy ordinary-eigenvector case immediately.

  2. 2

    Apply (T-\lambda I) again to the PREVIOUS result, not to the original \mathbf v recomputed from scratch, and check whether the new result is zero.

    Example

    Continuing with (A-2I)\mathbf w=(1,0): apply (A-2I) again, (A-2I)(1,0)=(0,0), zero after 2 total applications.

    • the new result is \mathbf0 — the total number of applications used so far is the smallest k; stop.
    • the new result is still nonzero — repeat this same step once more.

    ⚡ Shortcut

    For a single n\times n Jordan block with eigenvalue \lambda (the superdiagonal-of-1s form), the standard basis vectors \mathbf e_1,\dots,\mathbf e_n have smallest k=1,2,\dots,n in that same order, read off with no computation at all.

    Why: (T-\lambda I)^k\mathbf v is literally (T-\lambda I) applied k times in a row, so counting applications one at a time is exactly what the exponent means.

  3. 3

    The count from Step 2 is the smallest exponent; the result one application before it hit zero satisfies the ordinary eigenvector equation.

    Example

    For \mathbf w=(0,1): k=2, and the intermediate result (A-2I)\mathbf w=(1,0) is itself an ordinary eigenvector of A for \lambda=2.

    Why: the vector one step before the chain reaches zero satisfies (T-\lambda I)\mathbf u=\mathbf0 exactly, the ordinary-eigenvector condition itself.

Common mistakes

  • Recomputing (T-\lambda I)^k\mathbf v from scratch at every exponent, instead of applying (T-\lambda I) to the previous result.
  • Reporting a k larger than necessary, without checking whether an earlier exponent already gave zero.
  • Assuming (T-\lambda I)\mathbf v=\mathbf0 for one vector says anything at all about a different, unrelated vector.
  • Treating "generalized" and "not ordinary" as synonyms, when every ordinary eigenvector is also generalized, with k=1.