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Proving a function is entire, bounded, or constant — which theorem closes the argument?

Liouville, the maximum modulus principle, and the identity theorem answer different questions — pointed at the wrong one, none of them close the proof.

Reach for this when a proof's last step is a claim about a whole function's global behavior — that it must be constant, that it can't peak in the interior, or that it must equal some other named function everywhere. Check which hypothesis you actually have: boundedness, nonconstancy, or agreement on a set of points.

Hypothesis: entire AND bounded on the whole plane

Analytic (holomorphic) at every point of the whole complex plane.
A set that fits inside some disk of finite radius; unbounded otherwise.

If f is entire (analytic on all of \mathbb{C}) and bounded — there is some B with |f(z)|\le B for every z\in\mathbb{C} — then f is constant.

Example

f(z) = \sin z is entire but unbounded (it blows up off the real axis), so Liouville says nothing about it — consistent with \sin z actually being nonconstant.

Entire + bounded together force f to be constant — neither alone is enough.

Show proof

Fix any point z_0\in\mathbb{C}. For every radius R>0, the derivative formula from the Cauchy Integral Formula (part (b), with n=1) applied to the circle C_R of radius R centered at z_0 gives f'(z_0) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint_{C_R} \frac{f(z)}{(z-z_0)^2}\,dz. On C_R, |z-z_0|=R, so |f(z)/(z-z_0)^2| \le B/R^2 using the global bound |f(z)|\le B; the ML inequality (length of C_R is 2\pi R) then gives Cauchy's inequality for the first derivative, |f'(z_0)| \le \frac{1}{2\pi}\cdot\frac{B}{R^2}\cdot 2\pi R = \frac{B}{R}. This holds for every R>0, and f being entire means the formula above is valid no matter how large R is taken — there is no boundary to run into. Letting R\to\infty forces B/R\to0, so |f'(z_0)|=0, i.e. f'(z_0)=0. Since z_0\in\mathbb{C} was arbitrary, f'\equiv0 on all of \mathbb{C}, and \mathbb{C} is connected, so by the Zero Derivative Implies Constant theorem, f is constant.

Hypothesis: analytic and nonconstant on a domain

Let f be analytic and nonconstant on a domain D. Then |f| has no interior maximum on D. That is, no point z_0 \in D has |f(z_0)| \ge |f(z)| for every z in a neighborhood of z_0.

Consequently, suppose f is also continuous on a closed, bounded region R whose interior is D. Then the maximum value of |f| on R is attained on the boundary \partial R. It is never attained only at an interior point.

|f| can never peak at an interior point — only on the boundary. Proves the opposite direction from Liouville: this rules out a max, it doesn't force f to be constant.

Show proof

Suppose toward a contradiction that f is analytic and nonconstant on D, yet some z_0 \in D has a neighborhood N \subseteq D with |f(z_0)| \ge |f(z)| for every z \in N; write M = |f(z_0)|.

The mean value property forces constant modulus nearby. Fix r>0 small enough that the closed disk \{|z-z_0|\le r\} lies in N. For each \rho \in (0,r], the mean value property — f(z_0) equals the average of f over the circle of radius \rho about z_0, itself a short consequence of the Cauchy Integral Formula — f(z_0) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} f(z_0+\rho e^{i\theta})\,d\theta gives M = |f(z_0)| = \left|\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} f(z_0+\rho e^{i\theta})\,d\theta\right| \le \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}|f(z_0+\rho e^{i\theta})|\,d\theta \le \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} M\,d\theta = M, the last inequality because every point z_0+\rho e^{i\theta} lies in N. Equality throughout forces the continuous, nonnegative function \theta \mapsto M - |f(z_0+\rho e^{i\theta})| to average to zero, hence to vanish identically. As \rho ranges over (0,r], this makes |f| \equiv M on the entire disk \Delta = \{|z-z_0|\le r\}.

Constant modulus forces constant value. Write f=u+iv, so u^2+v^2 \equiv M^2 on \Delta. Differentiating in x and y, then substituting the Cauchy–Riemann equations u_y=-v_x, v_y=u_x, gives the linear system uu_x + vv_x = 0, \qquad vu_x - uv_x = 0 for (u_x,v_x), with coefficient determinant -(u^2+v^2) = -M^2. If M=0, then f\equiv0 on \Delta outright. If M\neq0, the determinant is nonzero, forcing u_x=v_x=0 — and then u_y=v_y=0 too, by Cauchy–Riemann again — so f'\equiv0 throughout \Delta. Either way f is constant on \Delta, equal to f(z_0), by the Zero Derivative Implies Constant theorem (\Delta is connected).

Open-and-closed connectedness finishes the job. Let S = \{z\in D : f(z) = f(z_0)\}. S is closed in D, being the preimage of a single point under the continuous map f, and S\neq\varnothing since \Delta\subseteq S. S is also open in D: near any point of S, the same mean-value computation just run at z_0 — with that point standing in for z_0, using that f already equals the constant f(z_0) throughout a whole disk touching it — forces f to equal f(z_0) throughout a further whole disk around it (the identical mechanism the Identity Theorem's own proof uses to spread a zero outward, applied here to the zero set of f-f(z_0) instead of to f itself). This is exactly the open-and-closed connectedness argument behind the harmonic maximum principle: an equality pinned down on one neighborhood spreads outward, one overlapping disk at a time, to the entire connected domain. Since D is connected and S is a nonempty subset of D that is both open and closed in D, S=D. Hence f \equiv f(z_0) on all of D — contradicting the standing assumption that f is nonconstant, and completing the proof.

Hypothesis: two analytic functions agree on infinitely many points with a limit point in the domain

Let f be analytic on a connected domain D, and suppose the zero set Z = \{z \in D : f(z) = 0\} has a limit point z_0 \in D (a point of D every neighborhood of which contains infinitely many points of Z). Then f \equiv 0 on all of D.

Consequently, if f and g are both analytic on D and f = g on some subset of D that has a limit point in D — in particular, on any open subdisk of D or along any arc in D — then f \equiv g on all of D.

Example

If f and g are analytic on \mathbb{C} and f(1/n)=g(1/n) for every positive integer n, then f\equiv g on all of \mathbb{C}.

Agreement on a set with an accumulation point forces the two functions to be IDENTICAL everywhere on the domain — not just close, equal.

Show proof

Apply the theorem to h = f-g, which is analytic on D and vanishes on the given subset, so the consequence follows directly from the main statement; it remains to justify that one.

Every zero of an analytic function is either isolated (some punctured neighborhood of it contains no other zero) or a limit point of other zeros. The Taylor expansion of f centered at the limit point z_0 — valid since f is analytic there — decides which case occurs: if the expansion is not identically zero, its lowest-order nonzero term of some degree n dominates near z_0, forcing f(z) \neq 0 on a punctured neighborhood of z_0, which would make z_0 an isolated zero and contradicts the hypothesis that z_0 is a limit point of zeros. So the Taylor expansion at z_0 must be identically zero, meaning f \equiv 0 on some disk around z_0.

From there, the set of points in D where f and all its derivatives vanish is shown to be both open (by the same Taylor-expansion argument applied at each of its points) and closed in D (as an intersection of zero sets of continuous functions); since D is connected and this set contains z_0, it must be all of D. This "isolated zeros" machinery is developed rigorously in the power series chapter, where the Taylor expansion argument sketched above is made precise.

Worked all the way through

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